251-312 덤프 Symantec 인증

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시험 번호/코드: 251-312
시험 이름: Symantec (Admin of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
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Q&A: 246 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

Symantec자료   251-312시험문제   251-312   251-312

NO.2 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

Symantec   251-312 dumps   251-312   251-312   251-312

NO.3 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

Symantec자격증   251-312시험문제   251-312자격증   251-312자료   251-312 pdf

NO.4 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

Symantec   251-312인증   251-312 dump   251-312   251-312덤프

NO.5 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

Symantec시험문제   251-312 pdf   251-312   251-312기출문제

NO.6 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

Symantec   251-312 pdf   251-312   251-312시험문제   251-312

NO.7 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

Symantec dumps   251-312   251-312   251-312 dumps

NO.8 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

Symantec dump   251-312최신덤프   251-312 dump

NO.9 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312자료   251-312자격증

NO.10 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312   251-312   251-312   251-312시험문제

NO.11 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312덤프   251-312자료   251-312 dumps

NO.12 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

Symantec   251-312자료   251-312   251-312 dumps

NO.13 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

Symantec   251-312자료   251-312   251-312

NO.14 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

Symantec인증   251-312 dump   251-312덤프   251-312최신덤프

NO.15 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

Symantec   251-312   251-312 dumps   251-312자격증   251-312

NO.16 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

Symantec pdf   251-312덤프   251-312기출문제   251-312   251-312최신덤프   251-312

NO.17 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

Symantec dumps   251-312   251-312자격증   251-312자료

NO.18 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

Symantec자격증   251-312덤프   251-312자료   251-312 dumps

NO.19 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

Symantec최신덤프   251-312   251-312 dump   251-312

NO.20 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

Symantec   251-312덤프   251-312덤프   251-312최신덤프

NO.21 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

Symantec   251-312덤프   251-312   251-312   251-312 pdf

NO.22 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

Symantec   251-312최신덤프   251-312   251-312

NO.23 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

Symantec덤프   251-312덤프   251-312자격증   251-312

NO.24 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

Symantec   251-312자료   251-312   251-312 dumps

NO.25 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

Symantec dumps   251-312   251-312   251-312 dumps

NO.26 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

Symantec   251-312자격증   251-312 dumps   251-312기출문제

NO.27 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

Symantec   251-312   251-312 dump   251-312   251-312

NO.28 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

Symantec자격증   251-312최신덤프   251-312   251-312

NO.29 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

Symantec   251-312   251-312   251-312최신덤프

NO.30 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

Symantec   251-312최신덤프   251-312 dump

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시험 번호/코드: 250-308
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 8.0 for Exchange)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
100% 환불보장약속
100% 합격율 보장
Q&A: 265 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Enterprise Vault introduced enhanced archiving support for which Microsoft Exchange 2007 feature?
A. Outlook Web Access for Exchange 2007
B. Exchange Managed Folders
C. Exchange Management Shell
D. Exchange Dumpster
Answer: B

Symantec   250-308   250-308시험문제   250-308

NO.2 What is a benefit of archiving email?
A. enables efficient search and retrieval of email
B. provides a duplicate backup system of email
C. prevents users from deleting email
D. provides high availability of email
Answer: A

Symantec dumps   250-308   250-308

NO.3 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
Based on the information included in the Archive Properties window shown in the exhibit, why should an
administrator use the Rebuild Index Volume function?
A. A user's permissions to this archive were recently changed and the administrator wants to update the
index entries with these new permissions.
B. The index volume has failed, which prevents accessing the archived items.
C. A user that had previously delegated access to this archive no longer has this access and the index
must be updated to reflect this change.
D. The archive's indexing level has been changed from Brief to Medium and the user wants to take
advantage of searching all archived items' contents.
Answer: D

Symantec인증   250-308   250-308   250-308

NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
The picture Missing
If an organization uses a Mailbox Archiving Policy that uses the site schedule, how would the task run?
A. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run until it is complete or until 6 p.m. the next day.
B. It would archive 1000 items for each mailbox each hour starting at 6 p.m. until complete or until 6 a.m.
the next day.
C. It would start every day at 6 p.m. and run every hour until 6 a.m. the next day.
D. It would start every day at 6 p.m., synchronize all mailboxes, and then run until it is complete or until 6
a.m. the next day.
Answer: D

Symantec   250-308기출문제   250-308인증

NO.5 What is the recommended minimum number of processors for Enterprise Vault servers?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: B

Symantec   250-308 dump   250-308   250-308시험문제   250-308자격증   250-308

NO.6 What is the Vault Store configuration result after upgrading to Enterprise Vault 8.0?
A. All Vault Stores are fingerprinted for single instancing.
B. Each Vault Store is added to its own Vault Store Group.
C. All Vault Stores are added to a Default Vault Store Group.
D. Each Vault Store is configured for partition rollover.
Answer: C

Symantec인증   250-308자료   250-308인증

NO.7 Which mailbox does the Archiving Task use to connect to the Exchange Server?
A. any mailbox on the Exchange Server
B. the journal mailbox on the Exchange Server
C. the Exchange System mailbox
D. the Enterprise Vault System mailbox
Answer: D

Symantec   250-308 pdf   250-308   250-308덤프

NO.8 An organization uses three Exchange Servers in a single domain and two Enterprise Vault (EV)
servers.
How many Provisioning Tasks are required?
A. one per Exchange domain
B. one per EV server
C. one per Exchange Server
D. one per EV site
Answer: A

Symantec dump   250-308자료   250-308 dumps   250-308자격증   250-308

NO.9 After an email is archived for 90 days, a company decides to remove shortcuts from users' mailboxes.
Archived email is retained for five years within the archive.
Which three methods provide access to archived email when the shortcut is removed? (Select three.)
A. Search Vaults
B. Outlook search
C. Google desktop
D. Browser search
E. Archive Explorer
Answer: ADE

Symantec   250-308   250-308   250-308   250-308인증

NO.10 From which three sources does Enterprise Vault provide a solution for archiving PST files? (Select
three.)
A. Outlook profiles
B. Tape libraries
C. UNIX servers
D. Windows servers
E. Remote client workstations
Answer: ADE

Symantec   250-308   250-308기출문제

NO.11 An organization needs an archiving vendor that can provide low administrative overhead for deploying
different archiving strategies.
Which configuration task makes it easier to deploy different archiving strategies using Enterprise Vault
(EV)?
A. The administrator creates new Windows groups in Active Directory to align with their archiving strategy
and moves the users into these groups.
B. The administrator uses provisioning groups to apply different archiving policies to the various groups.
C. The administrator moves mailboxes to specific group Exchange servers, then runs an EV Policy
Manager script for each Exchange Server to deploy the policies.
D. The administrator creates a custom archiving policy for each executive user and leaves the default
policy for everyone else.
Answer: B

Symantec   250-308   250-308   250-308   250-308

NO.12 Enterprise Vault can synchronize which three Exchange permissions with archive permissions?
(Select three.)
A. Outlook Delegates permissions
B. Exchange Public Folder permissions
C. Outlook Folder permissions
D. Domain Administrative permissions
E. Outlook Address Book permissions
Answer: ABC

Symantec   250-308   250-308   250-308

NO.13 Which is a benefit of deploying Enterprise Vault?
A. It provides an alternative backup database.
B. It provides a way to help address corporate risk.
C. It provides a way to help address access control.
D. It provides an additional Exchange mail relay.
Answer: B

Symantec기출문제   250-308최신덤프   250-308   250-308자격증   250-308

NO.14 The administrator of ACME has been given a small number of PST files that have been exported from
another Enterprise Vault (EV) system that needs to be accessible from the ACME EV system.
What is the recommended method of migrating the PST files into EV?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: C

Symantec   250-308 pdf   250-308덤프   250-308 dump

NO.15 In which three languages are Enterprise Vault clients available? (Select three.)
A. Traditional Chinese
B. Danish
C. Portuguese
D. Finnish
E. Hebrew
Answer: ABE

Symantec   250-308   250-308 dumps   250-308

NO.16 What are three benefits of enabling Enterprise Vault (EV) for Outlook Web Access users? (Select
three.)
A. extends the archived mail availability
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. provides remote access to archived public folder items
D. unloads mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV services
Answer: ABC

Symantec기출문제   250-308시험문제   250-308

NO.17 A group of Enterprise Vault (EV) users can open archived shortcuts successfully. However, they are
unable to archive new items. Items selected to be stored within the vault quickly change from a pending
shortcut icon to a normal Outlook e-mail icon without an error.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. The ability to archive within EV has been disabled for these users.
B. The Archive Task that processes that user's Exchange server is stopped.
C. The Vault Store where the user archives are located is in Backup mode.
D. The Storage service on the EV server is stopped.
Answer: C

Symantec자료   250-308   250-308

NO.18 In which two ways does Optimized Single Instance Storage (OSIS) save storage space? (Select two.)
A. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in the same sharing boundary.
B. SIS identifies the SIS part from the filename.
C. Attachments are stored once within a sharing boundary.
D. The SIS parts are shared between the Vault Stores in different sharing boundaries.
E. Attachments are stored only once in a different sharing boundary.
Answer: AC

Symantec인증   250-308인증   250-308 pdf

NO.19 Which two Enterprise Vault features reduce the storage requirements needed by a company to
maintain information? (Select two.)
A. Data compression
B. Collections on archived data
C. Optimized Single Instance Storage
D. Storage on WORM devices
E. PST Migration
Answer: AC

Symantec   250-308   250-308   250-308자료   250-308시험문제

NO.20 Enterprise Vault can single instance savesets between which two storage locations? (Select two.)
A. Vault Stores
B. Vault Store Groups
C. Collection Files (.cab)
D. Managed Folders
E. Index Locations
Answer: AC

Symantec   250-308   250-308시험문제   250-308

NO.21 An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator wants to allow users to delete from archives. After installing the
EV Outlook Add-In, the EV toolbar fails to display the ability to delete archived items. The desktop policy
specifically enables the Delete from Vault functionality on the toolbar.
Which two actions should the administrator perform to correct this issue? (Select two.)
A. add the line "AllowDelete=1" to the WebApp.ini file located in the EV installation directory
B. uncheck "Prevent deletion of archived items in this category" from the retention category properties in
the Vault Administration Console
C. check "Users can delete items from their Archives" in the Site properties window in the Vault
Administration Console
D. restart the Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) to apply the changes in WebApp.ini
E. use the Mailbox Archiving Task to synchronize user mailboxes with the new policy settings
Answer: CE

Symantec   250-308   250-308

NO.22 Enterprise Vault converts mail message attachments to text or HTML.
What is a benefit of changing the default conversion type from HTML to text for certain document types?
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. allows for integration with third-party indexing engines
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

Symantec기출문제   250-308   250-308

NO.23 A user moves a shortcut created in Enterprise Vault (EV) from a Personal Expenses folder to a
Business folder. The folders are associated with Personal Expenses and Business retention categories,
respectively. The user notices that when the shortcut is moved, the retention category for the item
remains as Personal Expenses.
What should the administrator do to allow the item to inherit the retention period of the folder the item
moves in to?
A. EV is working as designed. To change the retention, the user must restore and rearchive the item with
the new retention category.
B. modify the options on the Moved Items tab of the Exchange Mailbox Policy to allow retention category
updates
C. right-click the mailbox folders and select Update Retention
D. within Site Properties, select the Retention Categories tab and select Update Retention upon Move
Answer: B

Symantec   250-308자료   250-308 dumps   250-308인증   250-308

NO.24 What are the three primary physical data-storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Enterprise Vault?
(Select three.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store partitions
D. Enterprise Vault databases
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: ACD

Symantec   250-308   250-308   250-308   250-308

NO.25 Refer to the Exhibit.
An Enterprise Vault (EV) administrator needs statistics about how frequently items are accessed. EV
Reporting has been installed and configured correctly. However, when selecting the Archived Items
Access report, it displays "There is no data available to display."
What is the cause for this message to display?
A. EV Auditing is not enabled.
B. EV Operations Manager is not configured.
C. EV Reports Configuration has not run.
D. The EV Fingerprint Database is not created.
Answer: A

Symantec   250-308   250-308   250-308

NO.26 What are two reasons for adopting Enterprise Vault to manage unstructured content? (Select two.)
A. to protect messaging infrastructure to ensure uptime and productivity
B. to enable corporate discovery and end-user search
C. to centralize information management and retention
D. to create and retain snapshots to facilitate instant recovery
E. to enforce compliance with endpoint security policies
Answer: BC

Symantec   250-308 dump   250-308자격증

NO.27 A network administrator wants to limit RPC traffic across the network and decides to completely restrict
the use of DCOM and RPC for end users.
Which Enterprise Vault (EV) Client Extensions should be installed?
A. EV Vault Cache
B. EV HTTP Only Add-In
C. EV Archive Explorer
D. EV OWA Extensions
Answer: B

Symantec   250-308   250-308자격증   250-308

NO.28 What is a benefit of archiving mailboxes?
A. enhances PST functionality in users' Outlook profiles
B. allows a central repository for users to access all corporate email
C. centralizes management of archived corporate email
D. removes the need for Exchange mailbox quotas
Answer: C

Symantec   250-308기출문제   250-308인증   250-308

NO.29 Refer to the Exhibit.
An organization is using safety copies on their Mailbox Archiving Vault Stores in Enterprise Vault (EV).
Users are prevented from manually archiving or restoring archived items. The organization wants to
minimize the time that users see pending shortcuts in their mailboxes using Outlook.
In what order should the administrator run backups and archiving?
A. back up Exchange, run Mailbox Archiving, back up EV
B. back up EV, run Mailbox Archiving, back up Exchange
C. back up Exchange, back up EV, run Mailbox Archiving
D. back up EV, back up Exchange, run Mailbox Archiving
Answer: A

Symantec   250-308   250-308   250-308   250-308시험문제

NO.30 Enterprise Vault can archive eligible items in mailboxes based on which attributes?
A. mailbox size and state
B. item age and importance level
C. item age and mailbox size
D. mailbox state and utilization
Answer: D

Symantec   250-308   250-308 dump   250-308

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-074
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Mgmt Platform 7.0 with Notification Server (STS))
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Q&A: 99 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 How does Notification Server handle inventory and event data after reaching the Event Queues?
A. Client Message Dispatcher -> DataLoader -> OLEDB -> CMDB
B. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> CMDB
C. Client Message Dispatcher -> NSE Processor -> CMDB
D. DataLoader -> Client Message Dispatcher -> XML -> CMDB
Answer: A

Symantec pdf   ST0-074   ST0-074   ST0-074   ST0-074최신덤프

NO.2 Which service monitors the event queue?
A. Dispatcher Service
B. Receiver Service
C. Notification Service
D. SQL Service
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.3 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. By granting the permissions to appropriate Organizational Views and Groups to a security role.
B. By including the appropriate filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target's rules.
C. By replacing the filters and Organizational Views and Groups in a target with appropriate secure
collections.
D. By creating multiple Organizational Views and Groups, each containing the appropriate subset of
resources.
Answer: A

Symantec기출문제   ST0-074   ST0-074시험문제   ST0-074

NO.4 What Symantec Management system feature is used to off load processing from a Symantec
Management Platform?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Replication
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: A

Symantec dumps   ST0-074기출문제   ST0-074시험문제   ST0-074   ST0-074기출문제

NO.5 If you have multiple Notification Servers in your environment how many CMDBs are required?
A. One CMDB for each Notification Server
B. One CMDB for all Notification Servers
C. One CMDB for all Symantec Management Consoles
D. One CMDB for each Symantec Management Console
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074덤프   ST0-074   ST0-074 dump   ST0-074최신덤프

NO.6 Which two troubleshooting tools are installed with the Symantec Management Platform? (Choose two.)
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Remote Altiris Agent Diagnostics
D. Microsoft Perfmon
E. WireShark Network Protocol Analyzer
Answer: AB

Symantec   ST0-074자격증   ST0-074자격증   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.7 What will occur if a resource is added to a second organizational group when it already belongs to
another organizational group within the same organizational view?
A. A duplicate resource will be created and given a new Globally Unique Identifier (GUID).
B. The resource will be removed from the first organizational group and placed in the second.
C. The resource will be listed twice in any target that includes either organizational group.
D. A resource association record will be created that links the two organizational groups.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.8 Which Notification Server 7 process parses the Notification Server Event (NSE) into SQL Statements?
A. DataLoader
B. Dispatcher
C. Event Router
D. Event Queues
Answer: A

Symantec기출문제   ST0-074최신덤프   ST0-074   ST0-074자료   ST0-074

NO.9 What is the source of the information in the Resource Manager?
A. Configuration Management Database
B. Altiris data classes
C. SQL Server Master database
D. Configuration menu
Answer: A

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NO.10 What must be enabled for a collection of Notification Servers to share common configuration settings
and data?
A. Hierarchy Feature
B. Inventory Forwarding
C. Client Policy Files
D. Site Maintenance Feature
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which pair contains Notification Server Event (NSE) queues?
A. Large and Small
B. Priority and Express
C. Fast and Slow
D. Default and System
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which item is true when migrating from Notification Server 6 to Notification Server 7?
A. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same server
B. Notification Server 6 and Notification Server 7 can co-exist on the same database
C. Additional SQL, operating system, and Notification Server licenses are required
D. .NET 3.5, SQL Server 2005, and Windows 2003 must be installed for the migration to continue
Answer: D

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NO.13 How are permissions assigned to resources in Notification Server 7?
A. Security Accounts Management (SAM)
B. Organizational Views
C. Access Control List (ACL)
D. Active Directory
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which Altiris component is used to move processing off of the Notification Server?
A. Package Server
B. Task Server
C. Site Server
D. PXE Server
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which Symantec Management system feature is used to reduce Total Cost of Ownership (TCO), that
is, increase the efficiency of a single IT administrator?
A. Site Server
B. Hierarchy
C. Task Service
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.16 What troubleshooting tool is used to analyze SQL queries and .NET code blocks running in the
Notification Server and associated processes?
A. Altiris Log Viewer
B. Altiris Profiler
C. Microsoft Perfmon
D. Microsoft SQL Server Management Studio
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.17 Which feature characterizes the decentralized management model?
A. Autonomous groups within your organization
B. A common maintenance schedule
C. A single data center
D. Limited number of remote sites
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074

NO.18 Which two items can be stored in the Configuration Management Database (CMDB)? (Choose two.)
A. Information related to the configuration of managed computers
B. An inventory of installed applications on managed computers
C. Software packages to install applications on managed computers
D. Symantec Management Platform core application settings
E. Settings and configurations for the ASP.NET web application
Answer: AB

Symantec   ST0-074   ST0-074시험문제

NO.19 Which server role will conflict with the Notification Server?
A. Terminal Server
B. PXE Server
C. Domain Controller
D. FTP Server
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which feature characterizes the centralized management model?
A. A single IT management team
B. Language barriers between sites
C. A large company with subsidiaries
D. Several data centers
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-075
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 (STS))
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Q&A: 105 문항
업데이트: 2014-04-28

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NO.1 Which database does Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 support for incident and policy storage?
A.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.4
B.any version of Oracle 10g
C.Oracle 10g version 10.2.0.1
D.Microsoft SQL Server
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 What must a system administrator do for Network Monitor filter configuration changes to take effect?
A.recycle VontuManager and VontuMonitorController services on Enforce
B.recycle PacketCapture process on the Network Monitor
C.recycle VontuNotifier service to propagate changes to Network Monitor
D.recycle Network Monitor server from the Server Detail page
ANSWER: D

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NO.3 What is a three-tier Symantec Data Loss Prevention 9.0 deployment?
A.two Enforce Servers deployed on the same host as the database
B.three different detection servers deployed on separate hosts
C.Enforce Server and a detection server deployed on the same host as the database
D.Enforce Server, detection servers, and the database deployed on separate hosts
ANSWER: D

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NO.4 What are three benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide that other security technologies or
tools do not? (Select three.)
A.give visibility into where sensitive data is stored
B.give insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identify who has access to sensitive data
D.indicate where sensitive data is being sent
E.measure encryption strength for sensitive data
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.5 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.provides a GUI for policy creation
B.detects incidents
C.writes incidents to all detection servers
D.deploys agents to endpoint computers
ANSWER: A

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NO.6 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
ANSWER: AE

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NO.7 Which three statements apply to communication between the Enforce Server and detection servers?
(Select three.)
A.By default, the Enforce Server and the detection servers communicate over port 8100.
B.Port 3389 must be open between the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
C.The same port number must be used for all detection servers.
D.The servers can be configured to use any port higher than 1024.
E.IPSec must be configured on the Enforce Server and the detection servers.
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.8 Which component of Microsoft Outlook Personal Folder (.pst) files does Network Discover apply filters
to?
A.individual emails in the .pst file
B.the entire .pst file
C.attachments in the .pst file
D.folders in the .pst file
ANSWER: B

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NO.9 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Dashboard report
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.System Events report
ANSWER: B

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NO.10 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Network Monitor
C.Network Prevent
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: D

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075덤프

NO.11 A policy manager wants to apply policies only to certain employees with a specific classification level.
Which TrueMatch detection method can help accomplish this?
A.Directory Group Matching (DGM)
B.Exact Data Matching (EDM)
C.Described Content Matching (DCM)
D.Indexed Document Matching (IDM)
ANSWER: A

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NO.12 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
ANSWER: A

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NO.13 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the System Events
report?
A.Reports
B.Policy
C.System Health
D.Administration
ANSWER: D

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NO.14 Why do companies deploy data loss prevention solutions? (Select two.)
A.to protect their perimeters from external threats
B.to help protect their brands and reputations
C.to prevent employee access to undesirable websites
D.to encrypt sensitive data to ensure secure transmission
E.to reduce the likelihood of data breaches and related costs
ANSWER: BE

Symantec   ST0-075   ST0-075자료

NO.15 Which three are valid Scanned Content filter types for the Discover File System target? (Select three.)
A.Exclude filter
B.File Size filter
C.Read ACL filter
D.File Owner filter
E.File Date filter
ANSWER: ABE

Symantec자격증   ST0-075 pdf   ST0-075

NO.16 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a public share with a Marker File
explaining why the document was removed?
A.Network Prevent
B.Network Protect
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Discover
ANSWER: B

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NO.17 What does a data loss prevention solution help an organization identify? (Select three.)
A.employee education opportunities
B.risk of virus infection
C.unprotected content on laptops
D.illegally obtained software on desktops
E.encryption enforcement opportunities
ANSWER: ACE

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NO.18 Which three describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select three.)
A.DLP is a company-wide initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by Information Security.
C.DLP is primarily driven by the Incident Response Team.
D.Employee participation is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
ANSWER: ADE

Symantec자료   ST0-075   ST0-075시험문제

NO.19 Which three are examples of confidential data? (Select three.)
A.national ID numbers
B.published press releases
C.health information
D.CAD drawings
E.manufacturing plant locations
ANSWER: ACD

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NO.20 Under which high-level node in the left navigation panel can administrators find the Discover Targets
page?
A.Policy
B.Reports
C.Administration
D.Data at Rest
ANSWER: A

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시험 번호/코드: 250-401
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Management Platform 7.0 with Notification Server)
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NO.1 Which Symantec Management Platform component processes data sent by the Altiris Agent and
stores it in the Configuration Management Database?
A. Symantec Management Console
B. Software Management Framework
C. Notification Server
D. Site Services
Answer: C

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
What is the effect of setting the scoped option when building a report query?
A. The report results will be limited to the resources that the user has permissions to view.
B. The users will be unable to bring up the Resource Manager by right-clicking on a row in the report
results
C. The available data classes will be limited to those that the user has permissions to view.
D. The users will be unable to drill-down to lower levels when viewing the report results.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The IT Department has been experiencing frequent turnover requiring administrators to modify security
role membership on an individual user basis An administrator wants to take advantage of membership
assignments established when new users are created in the network environment and connect them to
security roles. Which resource can be used in the Membership tab to allow user assignments to be
managed independently of the Security Role Manager?
A. Active Directory Security groups
B. Active Directory organizational units
C. Altiris Security Users
D. Altiris Security Groups
Answer: A

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NO.4 What are two ways that permissions are set within the Security Role Manager? (Select two.)
A. security role membership
B. NT rights assignment
C. inheritance
D. explicitly granted
E. domain membership
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Which two tabs are used to modify security roles in the Symantec Management Console? (Select two.)
A. Permissions
B. Privileges
C. Rights
D. Security
E. Membership
Answer: B,E

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NO.6 Which permissions do new security roles have?
A. the same permissions as the Symantec Administrators role
B. the same permissions as the Symantec Guests role
C. the same permissions as the Symantec Supervisors role
D. none
Answer: D

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NO.7 A manager is attempting to run a report that identifies users who have Microsoft Office and Adobe
software installed, but the report fails to run What is the first thing the administrator should do?
A. check the report for errors
B. check the manager's permissions
C. remove security from the report
D. clone and modify the report
Answer: B

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NO.8 How does the Symantec Management Console help keep reports secure and scoped?
A. by enforcing permissions that determine which reports users can view
B. by scoping privileges that determine which reports users can view
C. by using report filters so that only specific report data is displayed
D. by promptingAltiris Agents for log in credentials before viewing reports
Answer: A

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NO.9 Why would an administrator want to save a report as a web part?
A. to save the results for later reference
B. to use in a resource target
C. to use in a portal page
D. to be able to e-mail the results
Answer: C

Symantec   250-401   250-401

NO.10 What is the first point of contact for the Altiris Agent?
A. Notification Server
B. Symantec Management Console
C. Package Service
D. Task Service
Answer: A

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NO.11 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator created a report that returns the status of computers.
Which menu item should the administrator choose to compare the status from month to month?
A. Snapshot
B. Web Part
C. Static Filter
D. XML File
Answer: A

Symantec   250-401   250-401   250-401 pdf

NO.12 Refer to the Exhibit.
An administrator has cloned the Daily Event report. What must the administrator change to create a
Weekly Event report?
A. edit the Query Parameters to show a week of data
B. edit thedateadd(day, -1 @cutoffdate) section
C. edit the Resolved Query to show a week of data
D. edit the views on the Views tab
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which component enables users to view data from the Configuration Management Database
(CMDB)?
A. Log Viewer
B. Reports
C. Notification Server
D. Software Management Framework
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which statement describes the relationship between Site Server and Notification Server?
A. Site Server assists Notification Server by providing packages and tasks to theAltiris Agent.
B. Site Server sends information, events, and data from the Inventory Rule Agent to Notification Server
C. Site Server assists Notification Server by running reports.
D. Site Server takes over all functions for Notification Server.
Answer: A

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NO.15 The IT staff for a large corporation is distributed among its many physical sites. The Symantec
Management Platform administrator needs to ensure that the local IT staff for any given location only has
rights to manage computers at that location and not at any other location.
Which two items must the administrator create and assign the appropriate rights to? (Select two.)
A. filter
B. organizational group
C. site
D. organizational view
E. collection
Answer: B,D

Symantec   250-401덤프   250-401시험문제   250-401   250-401최신덤프

NO.16 During installation of the Symantec Management Platform 7.0 (SMP), an administrator specifies an
account created for SMP to be used as the Application Identity. When the administrator tries to connect to
the console from their workstation they receive an Access Denied message.
Why is the administrator's access denied?
A. The account used to install is the only account in the Symantec Administrators Group.
B. The account used during installation has NOT been added to the Domain Administrators Group.
C. The system administrator is using an account that is not a member of the Domain Administrators
Group.
D. The console must be run from a terminal services session of the Notification Server.
Answer: A

Symantec dumps   250-401   250-401

NO.17 Which component contains the core service of the Symantec Management Platform?
A. Configuration Management Database (CMDB)
B. Altiris Agent
C. Site Service
D. Notification Server
Answer: D

Symantec   250-401   250-401   250-401

NO.18 How is resource scoping implemented?
A. by including appropriate filters and organizational views and groups in a target's rules
B. by replacing filters and organizational views and groups in a target with appropriate secured data
classes C. by creating multiple organizational views and groups that contain appropriate subset of
resources
D. by granting permissions to appropriate organizational views and groups to a security role
Answer: D

Symantec   250-401덤프   250-401

NO.19 Two administrators run the same report that displays Windows XP SP1 workstations imported from
Active Directory. The North America Symantec Administrator returns 2,500 workstations. The Marketing
Manager returns 500 workstations. When they compare the results, they find that there is an overlap of
100 workstations.
Why is there an overlap in the reports?
A. because the workstations belong to multiple organizational groups in same organizational view.
B. because the workstations belong to organizational groups in separate organizational views
C. because of workstation security privilege intersection
D. because of workstation security role filters
Answer: B

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NO.20 An Administrator wants to customize the default Symantec Administrators security role for use as a new
template for future console administrators Upon selection, the options are grayed out and inaccessible.
Which action should the administrator take to modify these privileges?
A. break inheritance to parent roles
B. take ownership of the role
C. clone the role and modify the copy
D. use a different credential with more permissions
Answer: C

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시험 번호/코드: 250-510
시험 이름: Symantec (Administration of SymantecTM Data Loss Prevention 10.5 - BETA)
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NO.1 Which products run on the same detection server?
A.Network Protect and Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover and Network Discover
C.Network Monitor and Network Prevent
D.Network Discover and Network Monitor
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which product can replace a confidential document residing on a share with a marker file explaining
why the document was removed?
A.Network Discover
B.Network Protect
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Endpoint Discover
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which product lets an incident responder see who has access to confidential files on a public file
share?
A.Network Protect
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Endpoint Prevent
D.Network Discover
Answer: D

Symantec   250-510   250-510

NO.4 What is a function of the Enforce Server?
A.policy creation
B.detection of incidents
C.inspection of network communication
D.identification of confidential data in repositories
Answer: A

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NO.5 Where does an incident responder find the exact matches that triggered an incident?
A.Incident Dashboard
B.Incident Snapshot
C.Incident List
D.Incident Summary Report
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which detection server setting enables detecting text within markup language tags?
A.ContentExtraction.MarkupAsText
B.ContentExtraction.EnableMetaData
C.Detection.EncodingGuessingEnabled
D.Lexer.Validate
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which file on the endpoint machine stores messages that are temporarily cached when using two-tier
policies such as IDM or EDM?
A.is.ead
B.ttds.ead
C.ks.ead
D.cg.ead
Answer: B

Symantec인증   250-510   250-510   250-510자격증

NO.8 What are two benefits that data loss prevention solutions provide? (Select two.)
A.provides accurate measurement of encrypted outgoing email
B.gives insight into capacity planning for sensitive data
C.identifies who has access to sensitive data
D.indicates where sensitive data is being sent
E.measures encryption strength for sensitive data
Answer: CD

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NO.9 Which information is recommended to be included in an Exact Data Matching (EDM) data source?
A.date fields
B.numeric fields with fewer than five digits
C.column names in the first row
D.country, state, or province names
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which response rule action will be ignored when using an Exact Data Matching (EDM) policy?
A.Endpoint: Notify
B.Network: Block HTTP/HTTPS
C.Protect: Quarantine File
D.Network: Remove HTTP/HTTPS Content
Answer: A

Symantec최신덤프   250-510   250-510   250-510

NO.11 Which two products can be run on virtual servers? (Select two.)
A.Endpoint Discover
B.Endpoint Prevent
C.Network Monitor
D.Enforce
E.Network Prevent
Answer: DE

Symantec최신덤프   250-510인증   250-510자료   250-510

NO.12 Which two recommendations should an organization follow when deploying Endpoint Prevent? (Select
two.)
A.test the agent on a variety of end-user images
B.initially enable monitoring of the local file system
C.enable monitoring of many destinations and protocols simultaneously
D.configure, test, and tune filters
E.configure blocking as soon as the agents are deployed
Answer: AD

Symantec   250-510덤프   250-510자격증   250-510자격증

NO.13 Which two statements describe an effective data loss prevention (DLP) program? (Select two.)
A.DLP is best implemented as a departmental initiative.
B.DLP is primarily driven by the network team.
C.An incident response team is rarely required.
D.Employee education is important.
E.Business stakeholders are held accountable for risk reduction.
Answer: DE

Symantec기출문제   250-510   250-510   250-510시험문제

NO.14 How is the incident count for a new system managed in order to avoid overwhelming the incident
response team?
A.Match count thresholds are set.
B.More than one policy is enabled.
C.Many incident responders are allowed access to the system.
D.Incidents are auto-filtered to hide false positives.
Answer: A

Symantec   250-510인증   250-510기출문제   250-510   250-510

NO.15 What must be running on a Linux Enforce server to enable the Symantec Data Loss Prevention user
interface?
A.selinux
B.iptables
C.xwindows
D.ssh
Answer: B

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NO.16 What are two valid reasons for adding notes to incidents? (Select two.)
A.to provide incident detail to policy violators
B.to allow the next responder to more quickly prioritize incidents for review
C.to allow the next responder to more quickly understand the incident history
D.to provide detail when closing an incident
E.to provide incident detail for report filtering
Answer: CD

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NO.17 Which plug-in can connect to Microsoft Active Directory (AD)?
A.CSV Lookup
B.Live LDAP Lookup
C.Active Directory Integration Lookup
D.Directory Server Lookup
Answer: B

Symantec   250-510덤프   250-510   250-510

NO.18 Which two products are required for quarantining confidential files residing inappropriately on a public
file share? (Select two.)
A.Network Discover
B.Endpoint Discover
C.Network Monitor
D.Network Prevent
E.Network Protect
Answer: AE

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NO.19 What are two examples of confidential data? (Select two.)
A.manufacturing plant locations
B.published press releases
C.stock performance history
D.CAD drawings
E.employee health information
Answer: DE

Symantec dumps   250-510 pdf   250-510   250-510   250-510

NO.20 Which two actions are associated with FlexResponse? (Select two.)
A.manually quarantine files
B.automatically quarantine files on file shares
C.modify a response within a policy
D.automatically quarantine files on endpoints
E.apply digital rights to content
Answer: AE

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시험 번호/코드: ST0-29B
시험 이름: Symantec (Symantec Endpoint Protection 11 MR 4(STS))
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NO.1 An administrator needs a TruScan Proactive Threat scan that will detect a potential trojan, worm, or
keylogger as quickly as possible. How should the administrator set the scan frequency?
A. set it to continuous
B. set it to scan new processes immediately
C. select the default setting
D. set it to 5 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which remediation option is available to administrators using the Find Unmanaged Computers
feature?
A. deploy a Symantec Endpoint Protection client package to the unmanaged host
B. monitor and log network traffic observed from the unmanaged host
C. install Microsoft Windows operating system security patches
D. disable network access pending Symantec Endpoint Protection client installation
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator has successfully installed Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager onto a Windows
2003 Server using the installation wizard. Which component is deployed to the server at this point in time?
A. AntiVirus/AntiSpyware Protection
B. Proactive Threat Protection
C. Apache Tomcat Server
D. Central Quarantine Server
E. Network Threat Protection
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which Symantec Endpoint Protection client component must be installed to enable Unmanaged
Detector mode?
A. AntiVirus and AntiSpyware
B. Application and Device Control
C. Network Threat Protection
D. Network Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.5 In which client management log can an administrator identify when the client last connected to the
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. Control
B. Traffic
C. System
D. Event
Answer: C

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NO.6 When using the Push Deployment Wizard, which two methods can be used to identify the target
machines to which you want to install the Symantec Endpoint Protection client? (Select two.)
A.browse through Windows networking
B.import a file containing IP addresses
C.specify a UNC path
D.import a file containing MAC addresses
E.import hostnames from an LDAP server
Answer: A, B

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NO.7 A Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager administrator is importing from an Active Directory
environment. The director needs to know which object types are being imported. Which two object types
are imported into Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager from Active Directory? (Select two.)
A.security groups
B.organizational units
C.computers
D.sites
E.domains
Answer: B, C

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NO.8 Which file contains the Symantec Endpoint Protection client communication settings?
A. GRC.dat
B. Sylink.xml
C. GRC.xml
D. Sylink.dat
Answer: A

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NO.9 Immediately after installation, what does a client do upon first contacting Symantec Endpoint Security
Manager?
A. register with the manager
B. download the latest policy
C. update virus definitions
D. launch a full system scan
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which setting can be enabled to report computers without a Symantec Endpoint Protection Agent?
A. LAN Detector
B. Unmanaged Detector
C. Segment Detector
D. Network Detector
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the default replication frequency when adding an additional site to a Symantec Endpoint
Protection deployment?
A. 1 hour
B. 8 hours
C. daily
D. weekly
Answer: C

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NO.12 If a Symantec Endpoint Protection (SEP) client is installed with AntiVirus and AntiSpyware components
only, what must be done to install the SEP Firewall?
A. redeploy the original installation package to the client
B. deploy the firewall license file to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
C. deploy a new package including the firewall component
D. deploy a firewall policy to that client through an XML file
Answer: C

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NO.13 Based on Symantec best practices, which two tasks should be performed before migrating from
Symantec AntiVirus Corporate Edition to Symantec Endpoint Protection 11.0? (Select two.)
A.disable Auto-Protect
B.disable scheduled scans
C.disable Tamper Protection
D.scan all clients
E.purge the quarantine
Answer: B, C

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NO.14 Which two actions can the Centralized Exception policy perform? (Select two.)
A.exclude a specific folder from AntiVirus and AntiSpyware File System Auto-Protect scanning
B.specify an exclusion to keep a known risk from being scanned
C.specify machines from which the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager console cannot be run
D.exclude forwarding of certain log types from the Symantec Endpoint Protection client
E.specify Intrusion Prevention system signatures for exclusion
Answer: A, B

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NO.15 An administrator makes a change in the Active Directory structure, which has been imported into
Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager (SEPM). By default, when will the change automatically be
reflected in SEPM?
A. as soon as the change is made in Active Directory
B. maximum 1 hour
C. maximum 4 hours
D. maximum 24 hours
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two features migrate from previous versions of Symantec AntiVirus? (Select two.)
A.Tamper Protection Settings
B.AntiVirus Settings
C.Uninstall Password
D.Client Group Structure
E.Firewall Settings
Answer: B, D

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NO.17 Which feature can be configured to increase or decrease performance of scheduled scans?
A. scan frequency
B. CPU throttling
C. heartbeat interval
D. tuning options
Answer: D

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NO.18 How many Symantec Endpoint Protection Managers can connect to an embedded database?
A. one
B. two
C. four
D. unlimited
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which two actions are available when TruScan Proactive Threat Scan detects a trojan or worm?
(Select two.)
A.delete
B.ignore
C.terminate
D.quarantine
E.clean
Answer: C, D

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NO.20 What can an administrator do to proactively obtain information about unknown devices on a network?
A. script a network audit using the Find Unmanaged Computers feature
B. create an Unmanaged Computer notification
C. schedule an audit report to send to the administrator
D. schedule regular LDAP synchronization
Answer: B

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