EC-COUNCIL 312-49 최신덤프

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시험 번호/코드: 312-49
시험 이름: EC-COUNCIL (Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator )
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NO.1 When an investigator contacts by telephone the domain administrator or controller listed by a
whois lookup to request all e-mails sent and received for a user account be preserved, what
U.S.C. statute authorizes this phone call and obligates the ISP to preserve e-mail records?
A. Title 18, Section 1030
B. Title 18, Section 2703(d)
C. Title 18, Section Chapter 90
D. Title 18, Section 2703(f)
Answer: D

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NO.2 A suspect is accused of violating the acceptable use of computing resources, as he has visited
adult websites and downloaded images. The investigator wants to demonstrate that the suspect
did indeed visit these sites. However, the suspect has cleared the search history and emptied the
cookie cache. Moreover, he has removed any images he might have downloaded. What can the
investigator do to prove the violation? Choose the most feasible option.
A. Image the disk and try to recover deleted files
B. Seek the help of co-workers who are eye-witnesses
C. Check the Windows registry for connection data (You may or may not recover)
D. Approach the websites for evidence
Answer: A

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NO.3 A(n) _____________________ is one that's performed by a computer program rather than the
attacker manually performing the steps in the attack sequence.
A. blackout attack
B. automated attack
C. distributed attack
D. central processing attack
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are contracted to work as a computer forensics investigator for a regional bank that has four
30 TB storage area networks that store customer data. What method would be most efficient for
you to acquire digital evidence from this network?
A. create a compressed copy of the file with DoubleSpace
B. create a sparse data copy of a folder or file
C. make a bit-stream disk-to-image fileC
D. make a bit-stream disk-to-disk file
Answer: C

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NO.5 When examining a file with a Hex Editor, what space does the file header occupy?
A. the last several bytes of the file
B. the first several bytes of the file
C. none, file headers are contained in the FAT
D. one byte at the beginning of the file
Answer: D

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NO.6 With the standard Linux second extended file system (Ext2fs), a file is deleted when the inode
internal link count reaches ________.
A. 0
B. 10
C. 100
D. 1
Answer: A

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NO.7 If you come across a sheepdip machine at your client site, what would you infer?
A. A sheepdip coordinates several honeypots
B. A sheepdip computer is another name for a honeypot
C. A sheepdip computer is used only for virus-checking.
D. A sheepdip computer defers a denial of service attack
Answer: C

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NO.8 What file structure database would you expect to find on floppy disks?
A. NTFS
B. FAT32
C. FAT16
D. FAT12
Answer: D

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NO.9 In the context of file deletion process, which of the following statement holds true?
A. When files are deleted, the data is overwritten and the cluster marked as available
B. The longer a disk is in use, the less likely it is that deleted files will be overwritten
C. While booting, the machine may create temporary files that can delete evidence
D. Secure delete programs work by completely overwriting the file in one go
Answer: C

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NO.10 It takes _____________ mismanaged case/s to ruin your professional reputation as a computer
forensics examiner?
A. by law, three
B. quite a few
C. only one
D. at least two
Answer: C

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NO.11 The newer Macintosh Operating System is based on:
A. OS/2
B. BSD Unix
C. Linux
D. Microsoft Windows
Answer: B

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NO.12 You are working for a large clothing manufacturer as a computer forensics investigator and are
called in to investigate an unusual case of an employee possibly stealing clothing designs from
the company and selling them under a different brand name for a different company. What you
discover during the course of the investigation is that the clothing designs are actually original
products of the employee and the company has no policy against an employee selling his own
designs on his own time. The only thing that you can find that the employee is doing wrong is that
his clothing design incorporates the same graphic symbol as that of the company with only the
wording in the graphic being different. What area of the law is the employee violating?
A. trademark law
B. copyright law
C. printright law
D. brandmark law
Answer: A

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NO.13 A honey pot deployed with the IP 172.16.1.108 was compromised by an attacker . Given below is
an excerpt from a Snort binary capture of the attack. Decipher the activity carried out by the
attacker by studying the log. Please note that you are required to infer only what is explicit in the
excerpt. (Note: The student is being tested on concepts learnt during passive OS fingerprinting,
basic TCP/IP connection concepts and the ability to read packet signatures from a sniff dump.)
03/15-20:21:24.107053 211.185.125.124:3500 -> 172.16.1.108:111
TCP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29726 IpLen:20 DgmLen:52 DF
***A**** Seq: 0x9B6338C5 Ack: 0x5820ADD0 Win: 0x7D78 TcpLen: 32
TCP Options (3) => NOP NOP TS: 23678634 2878772
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.452051 211.185.125.124:789 -> 172.16.1.103:111
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29733 IpLen:20 DgmLen:84
Len: 64
01 0A 8A 0A 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 A0 ................
00 00 00 02 00 00 00 03 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 ................
00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 01 86 B8 00 00 00 01 ................
00 00 00 11 00 00 00 00 ........
=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=+=
03/15-20:21:24.730436 211.185.125.124:790 -> 172.16.1.103:32773
UDP TTL:43 TOS:0x0 ID:29781 IpLen:20 DgmLen:1104
Len: 1084
47 F7 9F 63 00 00 00 00 00 00 00 02 00 01 86 B8 G..c............
00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 01 00 00 00 20 ...............
3A B1 5E E5 00 00 00 09 6C 6F 63 61 6C 68 6F 73 :.

EC-COUNCIL 312-50v7 덤프데모

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시험 번호/코드: 312-50v7
시험 이름: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures (CEHv7))
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NO.1 How do you defend against ARP Spoofing? Select three.
A. Use ARPWALL system and block ARP spoofing attacks
B. Tune IDS Sensors to look for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
C. Use private VLANS
D. Place static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.2 Lori is a Certified Ethical Hacker as well as a Certified Hacking Forensics Investigator working as an IT
security consultant. Lori has been hired on by Kiley Innovators, a large marketing firm that recently
underwent a string of thefts and corporate espionage incidents. Lori is told that a rival marketing company
came out with an exact duplicate product right before Kiley Innovators was about to release it. The
executive team believes that an employee is leaking information to the rival company. Lori questions all
employees, reviews server logs, and firewall logs; after which she finds nothing. Lori is then given
permission to search through the corporate email system. She searches by email being sent to and sent
from the rival marketing company.
She finds one employee that appears to be sending very large email to this other marketing company,
even though they should have no reason to be communicating with them. Lori tracks down the actual
emails sent and upon opening them, only finds picture files attached to them. These files seem perfectly
harmless, usually containing some kind of joke. Lori decides to use some special software to further
examine the pictures and finds that each one had hidden text that was stored in each picture.
What technique was used by the Kiley Innovators employee to send information to the rival marketing
company?
A. The Kiley Innovators employee used cryptography to hide the information in the emails sent
B. The method used by the employee to hide the information was logical watermarking
C. The employee used steganography to hide information in the picture attachments
D. By using the pictures to hide information, the employee utilized picture fuzzing
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which of the following type of scanning utilizes automated process of proactively identifying
vulnerabilities of the computing systems present on a network?
A. Port Scanning
B. Single Scanning
C. External Scanning
D. Vulnerability Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.4 How do you defend against Privilege Escalation?
A. Use encryption to protect sensitive data
B. Restrict the interactive logon privileges
C. Run services as unprivileged accounts
D. Allow security settings of IE to zero or Low
E. Run users and applications on the least privileges
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.5 The following script shows a simple SQL injection. The script builds an SQL query by concatenating
hard-coded strings together with a string entered by the user: The user is prompted to enter the name of a
city on a Web form. If she enters Chicago, the query assembled by the script looks similar to the following:
SELECT * FROM OrdersTable WHERE ShipCity = 'Chicago'
How will you delete the OrdersTable from the database using SQL Injection?
A. Chicago'; drop table OrdersTable -
B. Delete table'blah'; OrdersTable -
C. EXEC; SELECT * OrdersTable > DROP -
D. cmdshell'; 'del c:\sql\mydb\OrdersTable' //
Answer: A

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NO.6 TCP SYN Flood attack uses the three-way handshake mechanism.
An attacker at system A sends a SYN packet to victim at system B.
System B sends a SYN/ACK packet to victim A.
As a normal three-way handshake mechanism system A should send an ACK packet to system B,
however, system A does not send an ACK packet to system B. In this case client B is waiting for an ACK
packet from client A.
This status of client B is called _________________
A. "half-closed"
B. "half open"
C. "full-open"
D. "xmas-open"
Answer: B

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NO.7 More sophisticated IDSs look for common shellcode signatures. But even these systems can be
bypassed, by using polymorphic shellcode. This is a technique common among virus writers ?it basically
hides the true nature of the shellcode in different disguises.
How does a polymorphic shellcode work?
A. They encrypt the shellcode by XORing values over the shellcode, using loader code to decrypt the
shellcode, and then executing the decrypted shellcode
B. They convert the shellcode into Unicode, using loader to convert back to machine code then executing
them
C. They reverse the working instructions into opposite order by masking the IDS signatures
D. They compress shellcode into normal instructions, uncompress the shellcode using loader code and
then executing the shellcode
Answer: A

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NO.8 If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of
business, they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person
hired, and they will be in the organization.
How would you prevent such type of attacks?
A. It is impossible to block these attacks
B. Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you
C. Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them
D. Investigate their social networking profiles
Answer: C

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NO.9 SYN Flood is a DOS attack in which an attacker deliberately violates the three-way handshake and
opens a large number of half-open TCP connections. The signature of attack for SYN Flood contains:
A. The source and destination address having the same value
B. A large number of SYN packets appearing on a network without the corresponding reply packets
C. The source and destination port numbers having the same value
D. A large number of SYN packets appearing on a network with the corresponding reply packets
Answer: B

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NO.10 Anonymizer sites access the Internet on your behalf, protecting your personal information from
disclosure. An anonymizer protects all of your computer's identifying information while it surfs for you,
enabling you to remain at least one step removed from the sites you visit.
You can visit Web sites without allowing anyone to gather information on sites visited by you. Services
that provide anonymity disable pop-up windows and cookies, and conceal visitor's IP address.
These services typically use a proxy server to process each HTTP request. When the user requests a
Web page by clicking a hyperlink or typing a URL into their browser, the service retrieves and displays the
information using its own server. The remote server (where the requested Web page resides) receives
information on the anonymous Web surfing service in place of your information.
In which situations would you want to use anonymizer? (Select 3 answers)
A. Increase your Web browsing bandwidth speed by using Anonymizer
B. To protect your privacy and Identity on the Internet
C. To bypass blocking applications that would prevent access to Web sites or parts of sites that you want
to visit.
D. Post negative entries in blogs without revealing your IP identity
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.11 This IDS defeating technique works by splitting a datagram (or packet) into multiple fragments and the
IDS will not spot the true nature of the fully assembled datagram. The datagram is not reassembled until it
reaches its final destination. It would be a processor-intensive task for IDS to reassemble all fragments
itself, and on a busy system the packet will slip through the IDS onto the network. What is this technique
called?
A. IP Routing or Packet Dropping
B. IDS Spoofing or Session Assembly
C. IP Fragmentation or Session Splicing
D. IP Splicing or Packet Reassembly
Answer: C

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NO.12 This type of Port Scanning technique splits TCP header into several packets so that the packet filters
are not able to detect what the packets intends to do.
A. UDP Scanning
B. IP Fragment Scanning
C. Inverse TCP flag scanning
D. ACK flag scanning
Answer: B

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NO.13 You run nmap port Scan on 10.0.0.5 and attempt to gain banner/server information from services
running on ports 21, 110 and 123.
Here is the output of your scan results:
Which of the following nmap command did you run?
A. nmap -A -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
B. nmap -F -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
C. nmap -O -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
D. nmap -T -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
Answer: C

EC-COUNCIL시험문제   312-50v7   312-50v7자료

NO.14 What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Source Quench
B. Destination Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded
D. Unknown Type
Answer: C

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NO.15 Jimmy, an attacker, knows that he can take advantage of poorly designed input validation routines to
create or alter SQL commands to gain access to private data or execute commands in the database.
What technique does Jimmy use to compromise a database.?
A. Jimmy can submit user input that executes an operating system command to compromise a target
system
B. Jimmy can gain control of system to flood the target system with requests, preventing legitimate users
from gaining access
C. Jimmy can utilize an incorrect configuration that leads to access with higher-than expected privilege of
the database
D. Jimmy can utilize this particular database threat that is an SQL injection technique to penetrate a target
system
Answer: D

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NO.16 What type of attack is shown in the following diagram?
A. Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) Attack
B. Session Hijacking Attack
C. SSL Spoofing Attack
D. Identity Stealing Attack
Answer: A

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NO.17 Jack Hacker wants to break into Brown Co.'s computers and obtain their secret double fudge cookie
recipe. Jack calls Jane, an accountant at Brown Co., pretending to be an administrator from Brown Co.
Jack tells Jane that there has been a problem with some accounts and asks her to verify her password
with him ''just to double check our records.'' Jane does not suspect anything amiss, and parts with her
password. Jack can now access Brown Co.'s computers with a valid user name and password, to steal
the cookie recipe. What kind of attack is being illustrated here?
A. Reverse Psychology
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Social Engineering
D. Spoofing Identity
E. Faking Identity
Answer: C

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NO.18 Joel and her team have been going through tons of garbage, recycled paper, and other rubbish in order
to find some information about the target they are attempting to penetrate. How would you call this type of
activity?
A. Dumpster Diving
B. Scanning
C. CI Gathering
D. Garbage Scooping
Answer: A

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NO.19 You are the security administrator of Jaco Banking Systems located in Boston. You are setting up
e-banking website (http://www.ejacobank.com) authentication system. Instead of issuing banking
customer with a single password, you give them a printed list of 100 unique passwords. Each time the
customer needs to log into the e-banking system website, the customer enters the next password on the
list. If someone sees them type the password using shoulder surfing, MiTM or keyloggers, then no
damage is done because the password will not be accepted a second time. Once the list of 100
passwords is almost finished, the system automatically sends out a new password list by encrypted e-mail
to the customer.
You are confident that this security implementation will protect the customer from password abuse.
Two months later, a group of hackers called "HackJihad" found a way to access the one-time password
list issued to customers of Jaco Banking Systems. The hackers set up a fake website
(http://www.e-jacobank.com) and used phishing attacks to direct ignorant customers to it. The fake
website asked users for their e-banking username and password, and the next unused entry from their
one-time password sheet. The hackers collected 200 customer's username/passwords this way. They
transferred money from the customer's bank account to various offshore accounts.
Your decision of password policy implementation has cost the bank with USD 925,000 to hackers. You
immediately shut down the e-banking website while figuring out the next best security solution
What effective security solution will you recommend in this case?
A. Implement Biometrics based password authentication system. Record the customers face image to the
authentication database
B. Configure your firewall to block logon attempts of more than three wrong tries
C. Enable a complex password policy of 20 characters and ask the user to change the password
immediately after they logon and do not store password histories
D. Implement RSA SecureID based authentication system
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC
Spoofing attacks?
A. Configure Port Security on the switch
B. Configure Port Recon on the switch
C. Configure Switch Mapping
D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: DC0-200
시험 이름: Dell (Certified Server Professional Exam)
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NO.1 You have just installed W2K on your server and you cannot get the server to see your local network.
What can you do to diagnose network connectivity? (Choose three.)
A. verify that the server is configured to use DNS
B. verify that the cable plugged into your server is not a cross-over cable
C. verify that the subnet address is the same as the rest of the working devices on your LAN
D. verify that if attached to a switch and using VLANs, your port is in the proper configuration
Answer: BCD

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NO.2 You need to install Intel NIC teaming for Windows 2000 and you do not have access to the Internet.
From what two sources can you obtain the PROSet software? (Choose two.)
A. Intel Network Drivers CD
B. Dell Server Assistant (DSA)
C. Dell Network Applications CD
D. Windows 2000 Installation CD
Answer: AB

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NO.3 Which two components can be installed in the 0U space found in Dell racks? (Choose two .)
A. Dell UPS
B. Dell PDU
C. Dell flat panel monitor
D. Dell Dual-Power Grid Switch
Answer: BD

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NO.4 How many PowerEdge 1650 servers can be installed in a Dell 42U rack that already has two
PowerEdge 2650 servers, a PowerEdge 6650 server, and a 1U keyboard and monitor drawer?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
Answer: C

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NO.5 You select the RAID Configuration Utility from the Utility Partition menu. This takes you to the _____.
A. system setup
B. PERC BIOS
C. CERC BIOS
D. Array Manager
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which benefit does Link Aggregation provide, as used by Intel NICs in PowerEdge servers?
A. provides load-balanced fault tolerance to the network
B. assures that if one adapter fails, the server remains available to the network
C. combines multiple adapters into one channel, providing greater bandwidth for network traffic
D. allows multiple adapters to share the network load, preventing one adapter from being overloaded
Answer: C

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NO.7 What happens when you specify a Preferred Primary Adapter in Windows 2000 for an AFT NIC team?
A. You specify which adaptor will take the entire load. The other NICs will be used only when the
Preferred Primary fails.
B. You specify the desired card for all outgoing traffic for the team. The other members will still accept
incoming packets.
C. You specify the desired card for all incoming traffic for the team. The other members will still transmit
outgoing packets.
D. You specify which adaptor will take the load until it is saturated, then the other members will start
accepting packets until the Preferred Primary is just below the saturation point.
Answer: A

Dell기출문제   DC0-200   DC0-200시험문제

NO.8 You are about to begin the installation of Windows 2000 Server on your PowerEdge server . As you
inspect the System Setup Utility, you notice that the Asset Tag field is blank. What are two ways you can
add the correct asset tag into the BIOS? (Choose two.)
A. Flashing the ESM to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
B. Flashing the BIOS to the latest revision automatically updates the Asset Tag field.
C. You create the Asset Tag Utility Diskette from the DSA CD and use it to update the Asset Tag field.
D. You download the Asset Tag Utility from premiersupport.dell.com and use it to update the Asset Tag
Field.
E. After installing Windows 2000, you use the Asset Manager application from the Dell group in control
panel to update the Asset Tag field.
Answer: CD

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200자료   DC0-200

NO.9 Which two operations can be performed with the DSA CD? (Choose two.)
A. run system diagnostics on your server
B. create Windows 2000 driver/utilities diskette(s)
C. create NetWare 5.1/6.0 driver/utilities diskette(s)
D. change the Dell Service Tag via the Service Tag Utility
Answer: BC

Dell자격증   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.10 You are configuring network teaming on a PowerEdge server. The server has Windows 2000 installed
and you do not know what network adapters are in the system. Without physically opening the chassis,
what are two ways to see which network adapters are installed using the operating system? (Choose
two.)
A. type ifconfig -a at a command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will be
named
B. type ipconfig /all at the command prompt; on the description line, the manufacturer and device type will
be named
C. right-click My Computer, select Manage, left-click Device Manager, expand Network Adapters, and
view installed adapters
D. right-click Network Neighborhood, select Properties, double-click Internet Protocol (TCP/IP), and view
protocol-bound adapters
Answer: BC

Dell   DC0-200자료   DC0-200

NO.11 Which two features are found on both 24U and 42U Dell racks? (Choose two.)
A. split rear door for cable access
B. diagnostic LCD panel on the front door
C. integrated redundant 1000 watt power supplies
D. 0U space that can be used for components other than servers and storage
Answer: AD

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.12 Which tool can be used to create a Utility Partition?
A. DOS fdisk Utility
B. Dell Server Assistant CD
C. Dell OpenManage Array Manager
D. Dell OpenManage IT Assistant CD
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the intended mounting location for a 0U rack mount device in a Dell rack?
A. at the top of the rack
B. on the back doors of the rack
C. in any of the 42U spaces available
D. in the mounting holes in the side walls of the rack
Answer: D

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NO.14 What is the default path and name of the logging file if the Message Logging option is selected when
running diagnostics?
A. A: RESULT.txt
B. C: RESULTS.txt
C. C: DELLTEST.txt
D. A: DELLTESTS.txt
Answer: A

Dell자격증   DC0-200 dump   DC0-200자료   DC0-200

NO.15 What is the correct NIC teaming for the Intel Proprietary Method to accomplish fault tolerance?
A. AFT
B. ALB
C. ATF
D. SLB
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which statement is true about using the Save feature of BASP?
A. It is only available in Windows 2000.
B. It saves a configuration as an executable file.
C. It lets you transfer teaming configurations to other servers.
D. It is used to install and configure the Broadcom Ethernet Controller driver.
Answer: C

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NO.17 You want to install Windows 2000 Server and Dell-validated drivers for your factory-installed devices
using the Dell Server Assistant CD. From which location should you launch the Dell Server Assistant?
A. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD after installing Windows 2000
B. autorun the CD from the Windows desktop after installing Windows 2000
C. boot to the Dell Server Assistant CD and have your Windows CD available
D. use the Dell Server Assistant to create a Utility Partition and launch the installation from the Utility
Partition
Answer: C

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200인증

NO.18 Which three statements are true about installing the Intel drivers and utilities that allow teaming in
Windows 2000? (Choose three .)
A. You must install the ProSet Utility.
B. You must install the Intel driver using floppy diskettes.
C. Loading Windows 2000 using the DSA CD-ROM loads the drivers and ProSet Utility.
D. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the drivers from the Intel
Network Drivers CD.
E. If you install the adapters after you have installed the OS, you can get the ProSet Utility from the Intel
ProSet Utility CD.
Answer: ACD

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NO.19 Which three hard drive partitions must be defined during the automated Linux installation process?
(Choose three.)
A. root
B. logs
C. boot
D. data
E. swap
Answer: ACE

Dell   DC0-200   DC0-200   DC0-200

NO.20 Which four steps are necessary for creating a team in Windows 2000 using BASP? (Choose four.)
A. set the media type for the adapters
B. create a team and assign it a name
C. select the adapters from the list to add to the team
D. select the Broadcom Advanced Server Program Driver
E. configure the IP address and subnet mask for the team F. enter the path and filename of the
configuration to be saved
Answer: BCDE

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시험 번호/코드: PW0-105
시험 이름: CWNP (Certified Wireless Network Administrator (CWNA))
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NO.1 What answers correctly complete the following sentence?
____________ and ____________ carrier sense functions are used to determine whether the wireless
medium is idle or busy. (Choose 2)
A. Passive
B. Pseudo-random
C. Virtual
D. Active
E. Physical
F. Interframe
G. Vector
Answer: C,E

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NO.2 ABC Company has a 2.4 and 5 GHz WLAN deployment supporting four bands in the 5 GHz range
(UNII 1, UNII 2, UNII 2e, and UNII 3). DFS functionality is enabled as required by the regulatory domain.
Band steering is also enabled to encourage dual-band clients to use frequency bands with more capacity.
Your performance analysis shows that many dual-band VoWiFi client devices will move back and forth
between 2.4 and 5 GHz as the user roams throughout the building. All APs have 2.4 and 5 GHz radios
enabled.
This "band hopping" behavior is viewed by network staff to be undesirable. What is the most likely cause
of the unpredictable client band selection behavior?
A. Interference from 5 GHz radar sources has increased frame corruption and retries on channels 36-48
in UNII 1.
B. 5 GHz frequencies offer better RF penetration than 2.4 GHz, but 2.4 GHz offers more voice call
capacity and lower latency than 5 GHz.
C. The voice client does not support DFS, and therefore experiences some 5 GHz coverage holes as it
moves through the network.
D. The client's band selection algorithm prefers 5 GHz, but band steering behavior usually steers 75-85%
of client devices to 2.4 GHz.
Answer: C

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NO.3 What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)
A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.
B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.
C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.
D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types
must be sent to the controller.
E. In a distributed (local bridging) data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and
decryption.
Answer: A,E

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NO.4 Why is it recommended for a wireless network administrator to disable 1 Mbps and 2 Mbps data rates
on the WLAN infrastructure? (Choose two)
A. To improve capacity in the BSS
B. To reduce the size of the AP's effective service area
C. To prevent 802.11b devices from associating
D. To maximize the range of the highest data rates
E. To prevent VoWiFi multicast frames
F. To enable support for long preambles
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 What component of the 802.11 standard allows stations to reserve access to the RF medium for a
specified period of time?
A. Long slot times
B. DTIM Interval
C. Listen Interval
D. Probe Request frames
E. RTS or CTS frames
Answer: E

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NO.6 Given: You are an independent contractor, hired to perform an indoor site survey and network design
for ABC Hotel. The network will support both hotel staff and guest users. You are interviewing the network
manager to determine business, performance, and security requirements for the future 802.11 WLAN.
What questions should you ask the IT manager? (Choose two)
A. What data cabling is currently installed in the rooms and throughout the hotel?
B. How much RF loss do you expect between hotel rooms?
C. Where are the RF dead zones located within the facility?
D. What types of applications will be used by the hotel staff?
E. Are there any radar systems in use at the hotel that would conflict with the WLAN?
Answer: A,D

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NO.7 What statement describes the authorization component of a AAA implementation?
A. Verifying that a user is who he says he is
B. Validating client device credentials against a database
C. Logging the details of user network behavior in order to review it at a later time
D. Granting access to specific network services according to a user profile
E. Implementing a WIPS as a full-time monitoring solution to enforce policies
Answer: D

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NO.8 Given:
Network users and IT personnel at a large machinery manufacturer have been discussing the potential
uses and benefits of implementing an indoor WLAN. The network administrator and network manager
have requested a meeting of senior management personnel to discuss a WLAN implementation before
taking any site survey or implementation steps. The first order of discussion in the meeting is corporate
policy concerning implementation and use of WLAN technology.
What specific topics are appropriate in this policy meeting? (Choose two)
A. Vendor hardware recommendations
B. Business justification
C. User productivity impact
D. Antenna types
E. Obtaining permits and zoning requirements
Answer: B,C

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NO.9 Given:
ABC Company performs top-secret government contract work and has recently purchased an
802.11 Wireless Intrusion Prevention System (WIPS) to enforce their "NO WIRELESS" network security
policy.
What attack type cannot be recognized by the WIPS?
A. Deauthentication
B. MAC Spoofing
C. Protocol Jamming
D. Eavesdropping
E. RF Jamming
Answer: D

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NO.10 During the discovery and connectivity process, client and AP stations exchange information about their
supported data rates. After the association, how do client and AP stations select the supported data rate
that will be used to send an 802.11 data frame?
A. During the association, the client and AP agree to use the same transmit rate, but either station can
request a change at any time after the association.
B. The client and AP each choose the optimal data rate to use independently of one another, based on
their own experience of the RF link.
C. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the AP determines the data rate that will be
used by each client station in the BSS.
D. The client and AP may use different transmit rates, but the client determines the data rate that it will
use and the data rate that the AP will use when communicating to the client.
E. The client and AP may use a different transmit rates, but the transmit rate is determined by the peer
station, based on the peer's experience of the RF link.
Answer: B

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NO.11 In a long-distance RF link, what statement about Fade Margin is true?
A. Fade Margin is an additional pad of signal strength designed into the RF system to compensate for
unpredictable signal fading.
B. The Fade Margin of a long-distance radio link should be equivalent to the receiver's antenna gain.
C. A Fade Margin is unnecessary on a long-distance RF link if more than 80% of the first Fresnel zone is
clear of obstructions.
D. The Fade Margin is a measurement of signal loss through free space, and is a function of frequency
and distance.
Answer: A

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NO.12 What word describes the bending of an RF signal as it passes from one medium to another medium of
a different density?
A. Diffraction
B. Reflection
C. Refraction
D. Diffusion
E. Scattering
Answer: C

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NO.13 What statement best describes the manual RF site survey report?
A. It is a series of notes taken during the interview with the network manager and given to the site survey
project manager.
B. It is a one-page network inspection summary used to create a certificate of network compliance.
C. It contains the results from the RF coverage, capacity, and interference analysis.
D. It is an internal document used by the site surveying firm for network deployment, and is not usually
shown to the client.
E. It states the customer requirements, business justification, and a detailed budget for the WLAN.
Answer: C

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NO.14 What feature(s) are most likely to be supported by 802.11 enterprise-class WLAN controllers? (Choose
4)
A. Link aggregation / port trunking
B. 802.1p and DSCP QoS
C. BGP and Frame Relay
D. Captive web portals
E. IGMP snooping
Answer: A,B,D,E

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NO.15 Given: You were previously on-site at ABC's facility to conduct a pre-deployment RF site survey. The
WLAN has been deployed according to your recommendations and you are on-site again to perform a
network validation.
When performing this type of post-deployment RF site survey for VoWiFi, what are two steps that must be
performed? (Choose two)
A. Coverage analysis to verify appropriate coverage and roaming boundaries
B. Spectrum analysis to locate and identify RF interference sources
C. Hidden node analysis to identify and relocate existing hidden nodes
D. Protocol analysis to discover channel use on neighboring APs
E. Application analysis with an active phone call on a VoWiFi handset
Answer: A,E

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NO.16 Given: Your consulting firm has recently been hired to complete a site survey for ABC Company. Your
engineers use predictive modeling software for surveying, but ABC Company insists on a pre-deployment
site visit.
What tasks should be performed as part of the pre-deployment visit to prepare for a predictive survey?
(Choose two)
A. With a spectrum analyzer, identify the type, amplitude, and location of RF interference sources, if any
are present.
B. Evaluate the building materials at ABC's facility and confirm that the floor plan documents are
consistent with the actual building.
C. Validate that the AP transmit power and antenna type is identical for each AP in ABC's existing
deployment.
D. Collect information about ABC Company's security requirements and the current configuration of their
RADIUS and user database servers.
E. Simultaneously capture and analyze data on each 802.11 channel to establish a baseline for potential
network capacity and throughput.
Answer: A,B

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NO.17 Given: You are the network administrator for ABC Company. Your manager has recently attended a
wireless security seminar. The seminar speaker taught that a wireless network could be hidden from
potential intruders if you disabled the broadcasting of the SSID in Beacons and configured the access
points not to respond to Probe Request frames that have a null SSID field.
Your manager suggests implementing these security practices. What response should you give to this
suggestion? (Choose two)
A. Any 802.11 protocol analyzer can see the SSID in clear text in frames other than Beacons and Probe
Response frames. This negates any security benefit of trying to hide the SSID in Beacons and Probe
Response frames.
B. This security practice prevents manufacturers' client utilities from detecting the SSID. As a result, the
SSID cannot be obtained by attackers, except through social engineering, guessing, or use of a WIPS.
C. Although it does not benefit the security posture, hiding the SSID in Beacons and Probe Response
frames can be helpful for preventing some users (such as guests) from attempting to connect to the
corporate network.
D. Any tenants in the same building using advanced penetration testing tools will be able to obtain the
SSID by exploiting WPA EAPOL-Key exchanges. This poses an additional risk of exposing the WPA key.
E. To improve security by hiding the SSID, the AP and client stations must both be configured to remove
the SSID from association request and response frames. Most WLAN products support this.
Answer: A,C

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NO.18 What WLAN system feature is required to produce a scenario with the following configuration on a
single access point? (Choose 2)
1. SSID = Guest / BSSID = AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA /
VLAN = 22 / Subnet = 192.168.22.0 / RF Channel = 6
2. SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /
VLAN = 33 / Subnet = 192.168.33.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type A
SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /
VLAN = 44 / Subnet = 192.168.44.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type B
A. Multiple WLAN Profiles
B. Call Admission Control
C. Virtual Cell with SCA
D. Access Categories
E. User-based authentication
F. Dual-radio AP hardware
G. Integrated DHCP server
Answer: A,E

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NO.19 What 802.11n technologies require MIMO support on both the transmitter and receiver? (Choose 2)
A. Spatial multiplexing
B. Transmit beamforming
C. Maximal ratio combining
D. Space-time block coding
E. Cyclic shift diversity
F. Short guard intervals
Answer: A,D

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NO.20 When replacing the antenna of a WLAN device with a similar antenna type that has a higher passive
gain, what antenna characteristic will decrease?
A. Beamwidth
B. Range
C. Active gain
D. Receive sensitivity
E. Fresnel Zone size
Answer: A

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시험 번호/코드: TK0-201
시험 이름: CompTIA (CTT+ Exam (Certified Technical Trainer))
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NO.1 An instructor is conducting a virtual class and finds that several learners do not have computer systems
that actually meet the guidelines for the course. Due to this, certain required shared applications will not
work for them. Which of the following represents the BEST action for the instructor.?
A. Contact the course coordinator to remind learners of the requirements
B. Remove the sharing of applications as the entire class cannot participate.
C. Change the applications that are shared to ones that are compatible to all systems
D. Request the learners use systems that are compatible with the course.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following statements BEST describes the value of using a variety of question types during
instruction?
A. Regularly asking questions during a course helps to identify those that are paying attention.
B. Effective use of questions will enhance learners' conceptual understanding; encourage deep thinking
and meaningful participation.
C. Using a variety of questions during instruction prevents anyone in the group from becoming
disinterested with the same question types.
D. Questions asked often during a course will keep learners engaged, it is not important if they do not
know the correct answer.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An instructor asks a question and a learner provides an incorrect answer that has nothing to do with the
question asked. Which of the following is the BEST response?
A. Ask another learner to provide an answer to the question.
B. Repeat the question exactly as originally stated.
C. Rephrase the question completely and ask it again.
D. Reprimand the learner for their response.
Answer: A

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NO.4 After a training class was completed, the instructor conducted several passive on the job observations
of each learner who attended the class. Which of the following is the primary benefit of the observations?
A. It measures the application of the skills taught.
B. It validates the quality of the course material.
C. It requires the learners to use what they learned.
D. It helps to reinforce the learning concepts.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An instructor wants to demonstrate a technical topic that requires a certain procedure. Which of the
following is the BEST way to achieve this?
A. Have the learners brainstorm ideas on the topic.
B. Have the learners role play the topic.
C. Hold an open discussion on the topic.
D. Show the learners via a desktop sharing demonstration.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following would be on an evaluation when seeking feedback concerning courseware
material used during a class?
A. Design of the courseware materials
B. Accuracy of the courseware
C. Cost of the courseware
D. Instructor's use of the courseware
Answer: B

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NO.7 Learners are MOST likely to learn a skill successfully when a topic is presented:
A. In a cluster with other, similar skills
B. Just in time for the learner to apply it
C. As part of a summary of related skills
D. As part of a review session prior to an examination
Answer: B

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NO.8 A company is preparing to roll-out a training course on advanced accounting skills. The company has
asked a contract instructor to facilitate the course. The instructor has no background in accounting. Which
of the following should the instructor do?
A. Ask to team teach the course with an expert
B. Accept the offer contingent upon six weeks of preparation time
C. Decline the offer based on lack of knowledge of accounting principles
D. Accept the offer and learn the content by observing accounting experts
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following describes a form of feedback with the GREATEST positive impact?
A. Suggestions that focus on procedures versus the concepts
B. Measurable results from summative assessments
C. Specific comments on errors with suggestions on how to improve
D. Comparing learner performance with other learners
Answer: C

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NO.10 During a computer software training class the projector fails. Which of the following should the
instructor do FIRST?
A. Attempt to quickly fix the projector.
B. Move the class to another room.
C. Take a class break and find another projector.
D. Cancel the class and reschedule for a later date.
Answer: A

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NO.11 The Human Resources department is conducting a class for new employees when the air conditioning
stops working. Which of the following should the instructor do FIRST?
A. Report the incident to the maintenance department
B. Tell the employees it is not unbearable and continue with the course
C. Cancel the class and reschedule the class for another time.
D. Continue on with the instruction ignoring the temperature issue.
Answer: A

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NO.12 An instructor uses multiple forms of media to help the class understand a difficult topic. Unfortunately
learners are still having a hard time with the concept. Noticing difficulty, the instructor creates another
learning tool to explain the topic another way. Which of the following BEST describes the skill the
instructor is using?
A. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion
B. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training
C. Adapt learning methods as intended by the course designers
D. Enhance, substitute or create media as appropriate
Answer: D

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NO.13 A contract instructor has been hired to teach a course with twelve learners. After surveying the learners
it is identified that half of the class is not familiar with the subject being taught. Which of the following
should the instructor do to help the entire class achieve success?
A. Contact the training manager for suggestions on how to proceed.
B. Teach to the more experienced learners; the others will catch up.
C. Make the six learners that already know the material wait until the other learners catch up
D. Cancel the class and then divide the class into two difference courses.
Answer: A

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NO.14 An instructor is leading a virtual class when several learners start having significant bandwidth issues
that cause them to drop out of the live session. Which of the following represents the BEST solution to the
problem?
A. Inform the learners that most of the same material will be covered in the next class session.
B. Have the learners watch a recorded session of the class.
C. Request that those learners with bandwidth issues be moved to an in-person live class,
D. Cancel the current session and schedule a make-up class.
Answer: B

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NO.15 At the beginning of a training session, a trainer instructed the learners to use Brand X computers
because the instructional design assumes Brand X computers. Many learners objected. They felt that
since they will be using Brand Y computers at work, they should work on Brand Y computers in the room.
If the instructor needs to use Brand X computers to instruct, which of the following is the MOST
appropriate way to respond to the learners' need to be able to apply course materials to job
requirements?
A. First explain to the class how the materials apply to Brand X. and then do the same for Brand Y.
B. Do not mention either brand by name, but refer learners to the manual covering each of the respective
brands.
C. Provide a guide that relates Brand X to Brand Y computer functions
D. After providing the planned instruction on the Brand X computers, discuss differences that Brand Y
computers present to the user.
Answer: D

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NO.16 An instructor is preparing to start a class where several learners have arrived late due to bad weather.
The general mood of the learners is poor. Which of the following is the BEST way to handle this situation?
A. Use humor that will create a positive mood.
B. Tell the learners that the class will run late that day
C. Have the learners introduce themselves.
D. Proceed with the course material.
Answer: A

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NO.17 While facilitating a class an instructor uses a variety of questioning techniques. Which of the following
BEST describes the benefits?
A. Challenges learners, involves them and helps to monitor their progress.
B. Establishes an environment that supports learning, and maintains focus on meeting stated learning
objectives
C. Facilitates group dynamics in a positive way, while encouraging respectful interactions.
D. Keeps the learners engaged as to what is coming next and conveys the importance of their knowledge.
Answer: A

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NO.18 An instructor is conducting a review of written instructions and is aware that the preferred learning
style of one of the learners is kinesthetic. Which of the following is the BEST choice for the instructor?
A. Adjust the delivery of the review to include more graphs and charts as part of the exercise.
B. Administer an exam to verify learner's knowledge of the material.
C. Deliver the curriculum as defined in the documentation so that the rest of the class does not fall behind.
D. Adjust the delivery of the review to include a demonstration as part of the exercise.
Answer: D

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NO.19 An instructor asks an open-ended question to the class. Which of the following BEST describes the
skill the instructor is demonstrating?
A. Plan and use a variety of reinforcement techniques during training.
B. Elicit learner feedback on the adequacy of instructor responses.
C. Provide feedback that is specific to learners needs.
D. Create opportunities for learners to contribute to the discussion.
Answer: D

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NO.20 An instructor has a class of learners who are required to attend. Most of the learners are not paying
attention or participating. Which of the following will increase the level of learner motivation?
A. Explain to the learners that the material is really interesting and they might want to pay attention.
B. Ask the learners if there is something more relevant they would prefer to learn.
C. Explain to the learners the skills they learn by taking this class could lead to career benefits.
D. Explain to the learners that they are only in class for a few days, and to make the best of it.
Answer: C

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시험 이름: CompTIA (HTI+ Systems Infrastructure and Integration)
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NO.1 Which of the following devices is required by the Federal Communications Commission (FCC)
for registered alarm connections in which alarm panels are connected to a telephone line?
A. RJ-11
B. RJ-21
C. RJ-31X
D. RJ-45
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following does NOT need to be documented for a control system?
A. System diagram
B. Equipment list
C. Configuration of equipment
D. Equipment specifications
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is a support that is mounted to the backboard and used to manage cables?
A. Conduit
B. 66 block
C. D-ring
D. Cable tray
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following is a requirement of a home automation system that allows the system to
be set up for out of band remote maintenance from an off-site location?
A. Dial-in modem
B. Local terminal
C. Infrared remote
D. Wireless access point
Answer: A

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NO.5 A programmable HVAC thermostat can be accessed remotely to:
A. warm of a high heating bill
B. light up the thermostat in dark hallways
C. power the HVAC upon the loss of AC power
D. allow the panel to control the temperature settings of the thermostat
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following serial protocols allows the daisy chaining of devices?
A. Fire Wire
B. RS-232
C. RS-422
D. RS-485
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following standards has the greatest maximum distance from the central office of
the telephone company to the home?
A. ADSL
B. SDSL
C. IDSL
D. G.SHDSL
Answer: C

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NO.8 The IEEE 1394 interface is commonly referred to as:
A. SCSI
B. FireWireTM
C. Fast Ethernet
D. Gigabit Ethernet
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following terms describes a point or group of points in an alarm system?
A. Zone
B. Area
C. Perimeter
D. Demarcation
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following authorities establish the National Electrical Code (NEC) as legal
regulations?
A. Local fire marshal
B. Local governments
C. Building contractors
D. National Fire Protection Association (NFPA)
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which of the following systems utilizes the electrical cabling as a control media throughout the
house?
A. PLC
B. HomeRF
C. HomePNA
D. Broadband coaxial
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following devices will prevent the loss of functionality during a sudden alternating
current (AC) power outage?
A. Dedicated circuit
B. Surge protector
C. Transfer switch
D. Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS)
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following ANSI/TIA/EIA standards most directly concerns residential low-voltage
an telecommunication cabling?
A. 568-B
B. 570
C. 570-A
D. 606
Answer: C

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NO.14 A technician is programming the locations for 802.11 devices used in home automation. Which
of the following describes the Layer 2 address of the OSI model?
A. IP address
B. MAC address
C. X10 address
D. 802.11 address
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following methods offer protection from attenuation in larger installations using an
X10 protocol to control devices?
A. IR repeater
B. Signal bridge
C. RS-232 to RS-485 converter
D. 75 ohm to 100 ohm converter
Answer: B

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NO.16 An integrated home automation system is being designed to use a personal computer equipped
with a single IEEE 1394 port. What is the total number of devices that additional ports are
needed?
A. 23
B. 43
C. 63
D. 83
Answer: C

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NO.17 The design of a system requires a wall-mounted control device that works with a RS-485 based
control processor. Control needs to be available at 16 locations. The interface should allow the
technician to customize the menu options with icons and text associated with each of the push
buttons. Which of the following meets the design criteria?
A. Web pad
B. LCD keypad
C. If remove control
D. Touch screen controller
Answer: B

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NO.18 In a wireless security system, the controller should monitor each transmitter for:
A. high interference
B. low radiation level
C. high humidity
D. low battery
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which of the following tools is used to fasten a connector to a cable end?
A. Crimper
B. Wire strippers
C. Lineman's pliers
D. Punch-down tool
Answer: A

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NO.20 One of the devices used to control a multimedia center uses serial communications to receive
instructions from he system controller. The device needs to be tested off-line, and it has been
disconnected from the system controller. A notebook computer equipped wit ha serial port is
available for testing. Which of the following cables will complete the connection?
A. Coaxial
B. Patch
C. Telephone
D. Null-modem
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: PD0-001
시험 이름: CompTIA (CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam)
당신이 구입하기 전에 시도
일년동안 무료 업데이트
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Q&A: 861 문항
업데이트: 2013-12-30

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NO.1 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following devices can route electrical signals only when activated by an external control
signal?
A.Solenoid
B.Relay
C.Clutch
D.Capacitor
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which of the following is the FIRST step a technician should take when troubleshooting a device
issue?
A.Gather information from the customer.
B.Isolate the problem on the device.
C.Read the service documentation for possible causes.
D.Check the parts life counters.
Answer: A

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NO.4 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following failed components would be responsible for the fuser unit not heating properly?
A.Halogen lamps
B.Ball bearing
C.Hot roller
D.Pressure roller
Answer: A

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NO.6 When onsite repairing a printer the technicians cell phone rings and it is a personal call, how should
the technician handle this?
A.Answer the call and talk to your friend at the customer site.
B.Answer the call and tell the friend you will call them later.
C.Let it go to voicemail, call them back between service calls.
D.Let it ring and call the friend back when the customer leaves.
Answer: C

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NO.7 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following types of media would MOST likely cause above normal amounts of machine
jamming?
A.Envelopes
B.Colored media
C.Letterhead
D.Pre punched
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following items can be used as a discharge lamp?
A.Halogen lamp
B.Light Emitting Diodes (LED)
C.Fuser lamp
D.Cleaning roller
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.13 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.14 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

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NO.15 When arriving at the customers location, two different users describe the problem, and from their
description it seems to be two separate problems. Which of the following is an appropriate step to take?
A.Ignore both of them and decide what the real problem is.
B.Set up a separate call for each problem.
C.Have them duplicate the problem at the device.
D.Ask a third person and see if the problem is the same thing.
Answer: C

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NO.16 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

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NO.17 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.18 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.19 How should a service representative provide closure at the end of a call for a client?
A.Explain the issues of the call, the steps taken to resolve them and query the client if they have any
additional needs.
B.Explain the solution to the issue and then provide the client with the technicians contact information in
case they have any questions.
C.Give the client a technical explanation on the issue and how it was fixed; throw any faulty equipment in
the clients garbage.
D.Proceed to the next service call, check back with the client in a week to see if they have any additional
needs.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Scheduled preventative maintenance visits should be carried out:
A.after two unplanned service calls.
B.according to manufacturers specifications.
C.when the device is becoming unreliable.
D.every sixty days.
Answer: B

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NO.21 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which of the following type of lamp is used for heating a fuser?
A.Xenon
B.Halogen
C.Incandescent
D.Light Emitting Diode
Answer: B

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NO.23 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.24 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.27 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.28 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.30 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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